Against a 37/3 with wtsd 46% but w$@sd 59% 565hands, I have a note that he ch/calls weak medium hands and donks improved.
$0.15/$0.30 No Limit Holdem
6 Players
Hand Conversion Powered by weaktight.com
Stacks:
UTG ($36.26)
UTG+1 ($30.65)
hero (CO) ($30)
BTN ($31.97)
SB ($22.83)
BB ($24.62)
Pre-Flop: ($0.45, 6 players) hero is CO K♥ Q♣
1 fold, UTG+1 calls $0.30, hero raises to $1.20, 1 fold, SB calls $1.05, 1 fold, UTG+1 calls $0.90
Flop: K♦ 3♠ 4♠ ($3.90, 3 players)
SB checks, UTG+1 checks, hero bets $3, SB folds, UTG+1 calls $3
Turn: A♥ ($9.90, 2 players)
UTG+1 checks, hero bets $5.10, UTG+1 calls $5.10
River: J♦ ($20.10, 2 players)
UTG+1 checks, hero bets $5, UTG+1 calls $5
On the flop its an easy valubet, on the turn some hands improve, but there are plenty of FD, Kx and other weaker hands that call so it would be ok to bet bigger here right?
On the river I view this as a two-way bet, where I blockbet against the A, and get value against all the weaker hands.
Now I see that his w$@sd is quite high, but I think its just variance, cause its not sustainable with such a high wtsd. How does that change things?
