After this particular players actions I'm 100% certain that he's got either AA or KK or possibly QQ but muuuch more likely AA or KK. Since his 3bet is so small I call to see a flop ofc. On the flop I get an OESD, and since he's 100% (ok at the very least 98%) got a big pocket pair which I don't imagine him ever folding I think that the correct course would be to just c/c the flop and then c/c the turn as well if given correct odds to do so.
This is mostly to get validation so please bear with me on this sample hand, and if I'm wrong, please feel free to correct me.
9 players
Converted at weaktight.com
Stacks:
UTG (€10.26)
UTG 1 (€24.08)
MP1 (€3.70)
MP2 (€8.75)
MP3 (€4.79)
CO (€12.55)
BTN (€16.59)
SB (€15.33)
Hero (€10.05)
Pre-flop: (€0.15, 9 players) Hero is BB T♣: T♥:
1 fold, UTG 1 calls €0.1, 4 folds, BTN calls €0.1, 1 fold, Hero bets €0.6, UTG 1 raises to €1.1, BTN folds, Hero calls €0.5
Flop: 7♦: 9♦: 8♣: (€2.45, 2 players)
Hero checks, UTG 1 bets €1, Hero ?.
since chance to hit oesd is 5:1 and your stacks + villains high pp gives you implied odds to call the flop bet. If you dont hit J or 6 then on turn it again depends on villain's bet size and remaining stacks
