So this is one of those situations we've all encountered so many times but I'm still not sure what the best play is. The nut flush draw + 2 overcards vs all-in bet.
Poker Stars, $0.01/$0.02 No Limit Hold'em Cash, 6 Players
Poker Tools Powered By Holdem Manager - The Ultimate Poker Software Suite.
SB: $2.13 (106.5 bb)
BB: $1.46 (73 bb)
UTG: $2.17 (108.5 bb)
Hero (MP): $4.27 (213.5 bb)
CO: $2.26 (113 bb)
BTN: $2 (100 bb)
Preflop: Hero is MP with A♦: Q♦:
UTG folds, Hero raises to $0.06, CO calls $0.06, 2 folds, BB calls $0.04
Flop: ($0.19) T♦: 3♦: 2♠: (3 players)
BB checks, Hero bets $0.10, CO folds, BB raises to $1.40 and is all-in, Hero calls $1.30
Spoiler
Turn: ($2.99) 3♠: (2 players, 1 is all-in)
River: ($2.99) 3♥: (2 players, 1 is all-in)
Results: $2.99 pot ($0.10 rake)
Final Board: T♦: 3♦: 2♠: 3♠: 3♥:
BB showed 9♠: 3♣: and won $2.89 ($1.43 net)
Hero showed A♦: Q♦: and lost (-$1.46 net)
CO mucked and lost (-$0.06 net)
Did I made the correct long term play here or not? Considering these facts:
1. 6-hand micro cash game (lot's of weaker players)
2. Not too many reads on villain but I've seen him play pretty loose earlier
3. If he had an absolute monster like AA or a set I was pretty certain he would not play his hand like that
4. A normal smaller sized bet would definitly made me call to see the turn
EssentialIy I put him on a draw or a single pair type of hand but in the last case it's still a coinflip. I would be suspicious vs any 3bet but I guess the real question I'm asking here is this: Isn't this almost always a call to see the turn card because of the implied odds?
Of course since he's all-in so no implied odds but remember this are micro I see players like that do that with any draws or any pair (like he had).
So please help me out on this one because I'm confused. Equilab gives me ~52.73% equity and HM2 even 55%? These precentage don't change with any T in his hand except for AT in which case I still have 47.47% equity. But that's only because of the crazy all-in bet.
Thanks a lot.
