please answer my question i'm very curious
Originally posted by carusel
i dont get it please explain to me5 players all in each 4000 chips
one of them wins all the chips and finishes in 1st place
who is 2nd ? who is 3rd ?
Uh, its hypothetical? As in, the cards and the results don't matter and don't exist.
this thread is sooo funny (and controversial), i lav it! anyhow, to really imbibe the feeling of the situation, imagine yourself on the table, with 4 ppl going all in ahead of you. you havent turned over your cards yet. you laugh and say to yourself (what fools! i will fold any card i have). then you peek and see your rockets, glorious and shining in your hand. now you think, what a gift! your heart starts beating fast, you think, man i could actually beat them all right now! you open ur mouth and say... CALL! then you win! and crowds cheer (rightly so). OR you could lose, then you have a good story to tell for years to come, to your children and your children's children... (or at least anyone around you willing to listen)
sounds good either way to me. lol... computations aside, how can you deny urself being part of this historic hand. wahahaha!
thats my insane two cents worth. ♦
Originally posted by carusel
please answer my question i'm very curious
To Answer your question
Originally posted by carusel
Originally posted by carusel
i dont get it please explain to me5 players all in each 4000 chips
one of them wins all the chips and finishes in 1st place
who is 2nd ? who is 3rd ?
If you folded - you would most likely be second, or possibly third or something... Depends if it is a split pot
Unless I completely mis-understand the question...
its not a split pot
5 players go all in with exactley the same stack size
and only one of them wins the pot, the rest lose
the one that wins the pot is first, but who takes the second and third placE?
is depends on the strength of their hands i guess..
Ok, I definitely don't understand then.
It seems to me that if I fold my AA, I am definitely at least second since at least one of the other players is going to take the pot.
If more than one of the other players have identical winning hands (this is possible in this example yes?) then the pot would be split.
I could be wrong here, I don't regularly play tournaments, and anyway I am relatively new to hold'em, but it seems like it to me....