Hi. Lets say, that i fliped a coin and there droped a tail. Now i have a 75% probability, that now will drop a head (because 0.5^2=0.25), right? So if i will bet 1$ on head, if there droped tail before, and vice versa, i should win in 75% 1$ and lost 1$ in 25% of all bets. I can make this also on roulette, i tried it with funnymoney, but it didnt work much well. 
I expected that, but i dont understand, where is the trouble? Discuss.
PS: sorry for my horrible english
that's not how statistics works.
if the coin goes tails, tails, tails there is still exactly 50% chance of tails and 50% chance of heads. future probability has nothing at all to do with past results.
It's 50/50 all the time. If your concept worked, anyone could win easily. ♦
Good luck at the tables!
-thunderbird56-
the universe doesn't remember stuff, so you start with a clean 50/50 every time. Of course a coin could land on its side, or in someones mouth, which would make it less then 50% for both heads and tail, but 50% is a good estimation ♦.
