NL 1000, second straight on paired board

What's your reason for calling pre?
I consider preflop a very clear fold-or-squeeze spot.

On the flop if we'd checkraise we'd essentially rep 2 combinations of JTs and 3 of 88, if we don't squeeze 88.
By calling we represent 98s and T9s, perhaps J9s or KQ.

So calling is fine under the assumption he's going to valuebet the turn thinly - the question is wether to checkraise or c/c the turn in case he bets, I'm not sure if people think enough to realize that even though the c/c-c/r line is strong, we don't represent much here and will show up with OESD+pair type hands for the most part and should therefore call J9+ (with the intention of calling river) themselves.

As played imo it's an easy bet/call on the river because we very much look like the aforementioned hands, except even though our combinations of Tx are reduced, I think our range is more weighted towards it - and so is his.
In fact there's almost nothing he represents because he should bet the turn at least small to get some more value vs OESD+pair.
At the same time he can raise QT+ for value given there's almost no better hand in our perceived range and we're likely to show up with exactly T9 here.

I decided to call pre-flop because the "loosign player" of the table is on the hand (i want to play with him) and i also thought that the price is decent for a one-gapper, i pay 15$ to a pot that already has 65$. Is this a bad play with a one-gapper?

Usualy I would check-raise the flop, but at that time i had a feeling that the BU could be spazzing, so i called hoping to check-raise the turn, and also hoping to bring along the CO.

The question should be to call or jam IMO

we are really under repped and its hard for him to have a boat

pretty sure hes got a bare Tx most of the time

Originally posted by CallumN
The question should be to call or jam IMO

Nice point. If he had 2 pair or set by the turn, he should bet it, so it seems that a boat can be rulled out. Therefore a jam would seem a good option?

Theres only 1 combo of JThh and 1 combo of T8cc and lets say 1 combo of 66 that he checks back cause hes a

we dont need him to call with worse that often so even with just the KTs and ATs combos it becomes a profitable jam.

When we also consider he probably calls every ATo combo not just the ATs pre it becomes a pretty clear jam imo

imo, c/r F alw vs this betsize by fish. When fish bets this size, i doubt it's with an intention to barrel and hence, the turn will chk through a lot. And we need to get value vs his random pairs that he'll be bet/calling a ton after betting this size.

River is close, since fish can deffo show up with a decent amount of boats here and even Q9. But i'm for sure not folding, given that Tx is relatively likely to be raising the R as well.

Originally posted by stealyourblinds
I decided to call pre-flop because the "loosign player" of the table is on the hand (i want to play with him) and i also thought that the price is decent for a one-gapper, i pay 15$ to a pot that already has 65$. Is this a bad play with a one-gapper?

Usualy I would check-raise the flop, but at that time i had a feeling that the BU could be spazzing, so i called hoping to check-raise the turn, and also hoping to bring along the CO.

From an equity point of view we can call, but I believe the hand has reverse implied odds.

About the river:
Good point CallumN, I didn't consider jamming even though ruling out most boats :f_confused:.
The more I think about it, the more I like the Jam.

Shev's point about his betsizing is pretty good, too. As I said if he's valuebetting thinly it's ok to call, but when thinking about it now since he's a fish he's probably not too prone to do that and we might want to c/r right away.