Hi
I was in a hand in which my lowest was:
A 2 3 7 8 - hero
A 2 4 6 8 - villain
we both had these hands by fifth street
hero saw A 4 6
villain saw 2 8 7
we were all in on fifth
other cards were neglegible
why did the villain win?
are hands ordered from the highest cards first, he won due to the 6 vs 7.
If this is the case, explain to me why the probability of getting villains hand is significantly lower
thank you
♠_evil:
You have to read the hands l like numbers.
86421<87321
Don't understand the other question.
Sorry.
The probability of each hand is the same, is it not?
If villain sees 872 he knows he has the near nuts at that point because he has 86 at the top, and no two cards you hold can beat him, since has has A2 at the bottom.
If this is the case, explain to me why the probability of getting villains hand is significantly lower
// english 
I think I get his point...
Hmmm...in 5 card draw high, full house is better than flush cuz prob. of being dealt a full house is lower of being dealt a flush...easy? Easy...2233* is better than AA*** cuz it's harder to get 2 pair than one, easy? Easy...
BUT
AAKQJ is better than AA432 while prob. of being dealt each hand is the same.
Why? Because... it's high card game...can someone find a better answer?
IN Razz you get dealt 3 cards, you have the same chances of being dealt AKQ and A23 while first is a crap and second is a monster. Why? Because... it's low card game...can someone find a better answer?
I can blame 5cd for the same:
say I have AA55x and my opponent (somehow) also have a AA55x
Now we both discard 1. I catch AA554 and he AA55Q. He win...
So I wonder why did he win?! The prob. of catching a 4 is the same like Q so why the hell did he win? Because...
Now I have lots of questions I don't understand. If this thread goes on long enough, I will end up understanding nothing at all and have to go back to playing chess. 
Originally posted by jbpatzer
Now I have lots of questions I don't understand. If this thread goes on long enough, I will end up understanding nothing at all and have to go back to playing chess.
JBpatzer open raise e2-e4? ♠_evil:
I think opp question can be change to:
"Why royal flush is worst than 23457 in low-games, while it's harder to get dealt those first?"
at least I understand it like that...
Originally posted by Huricano
Originally posted by jbpatzer
Now I have lots of questions I don't understand. If this thread goes on long enough, I will end up understanding nothing at all and have to go back to playing chess.JBpatzer open raise e2-e4? ♠_evil:
I think opp question can be change to:
"Why royal flush is worst than 23457 in low-games, while it's harder to get dealt those first?"at least I understand it like that...
Well, them's the rules!
You're equally likely to get dealt any one particular combination of cards as any other. A Royal Flush only seems special because of the human brain's infinite capacity to spot patterns. Oh look! They're in a row! They're the same colour! Oooo! That's pretty! Let's make that the best!
And yes.....e2-e4 > all. Bobby Fischer was right. 
