Overbets X Equity: text error or my misunderstanding?

no because the 62bb won't vanish into nowhere.

one way to think about it is that you never-ever need to be right more than 50% when calling a bet that finishes the hand action.

why? because you are always getting at the very least "even money" - you invest the calling amount to win at least the amount that villain is betting. of course there'll be dead money from blinds and previous bets so the actual % you need is always going to be lower.

let's say you are on the river and villain makes some huge overbet like 69bb into a 20bb pot, if you call and happen to have the best hand you are getting his 69bb plus the amount in the pot.
how often do you have to be right? 69/(69+69+20) = ~43.7%.

this doesn't really apply to bets that don't close the hand action (ie, flop continuation bets) because of the threat of future bets - calling a flop bet doesn't ensure that you're going to see a showdown for that price.

Good afternoon?!

It's 9.38 PM (evening)

♦

Originally posted by Tomaloc
no because the 62bb won't vanish into nowhere.

one way to think about it is that you never-ever need to be right more than 50% when calling a bet that finishes the hand action.

Yeah, I figured that second part out one day before making the post (I've been playing no limit for about 2 weeks, now). *feeling like the Genius meme right now*

Curious thing is how I figured that out and still made such a stupid question (since the presupposition needed to understand that makes the answer to my question logically the same to what I've just understood). I ALMOST feel terribly embarassed.

Still, thanks a lot for answering

P.S.: It was afternoon in here. ♦