i really wonder , we are told we are supposed to raise always when first in but gto seems to follow a mixed approach in every spot , does it follow the same approach when it raise first in preflop?
for example lets say i raise this range: 66+ ATs+ , KJs+ , AJo+ , KQo+ , would it be theoritically better to limp middling hands such KJ , AT or kQ and raise some more semibluffing hands like suited connectors or small pocket pairs?
surely then you would have to limp every hand in ur range including premiums some % of the time. so now your limping range won't be so exploitable and that will then have an effect on your overall range which might not be so great.
Hmmm...
I think that limping when you suspect someone behind you of being overly aggressive preflop would be an exploitive move, not necessarily a balancing one.
So if you have no reads, then you're limping to create an image. What image do you want to show to the table?
How do you show that image -- do you have a polarized limping range? Occasionally limp speculative hand an strong hands? If you take that approach, you weaken your strong hands.
I don't see it in cash games as much, but in MTTs there's a whole lot o' limpin' goin' on!
Cheers,
--VS
generally bad because you allow BB too much EV with trash hands = not maximal EV for you against BB's trash hands = not good
In SB, however, I think it may very well be correct. Because 1) pot odds on limp are really good, 2) BB has high EV with a lot of hands even when you do raise, so you don't give a free flop that much
