What flop is wet?

I read the other thread. Does it matter if you call it half-wet or half dry?

The true measure is probably the number I quantified above or something very similar. Nitrol had one point that I agree with: Two-flush boards are probably given an "over-wetted" estimate. (Great boards for floating and bluffing when flush card hits vs opponents doing that.) I have myself probably played to scarred on two-flush boards.

I recently reread the what-peple-think-is-super-outdated "Super System II", and got reminded about these nearly obvious facts. The flop analysis in that book is actually nice. But forget about the preflop advice... Another advice in that I always follow is that if you sit down in a $250-$500 (small-blind, big blind) game, you should buy in for at least $100 000. Also, if another man is sitting with much more, buy in for a similar amount (How else could you break him?)

I have this idea from a pokerstrategy video. https://www.pokerstrategy.com/video/38369/

The flops can be categorized in 12 different types. We can divide those flops systematicly on one axis, high card and on another axis drawyness in terms of nutted hands.(gutshots, oesd,fd). An classical example for a dry flop is K72 rainbow. One high card and no flushdraws or straightdraws. An classical example of a wet flop is Q:sT:s7:d.

But as is mentioned. The flops that are dry or wet can also be seen from the perspective of how hard has a particular flop hit villain or hero. In this case the particular villain hasn't hit this board at all. There are few people that have 45s in their preflop open raising range on mp. So for how far it goes for straight draws its dry and for flushdraws its kinda wet so this flop is in my opinion more dry than wet with one middling card.

No, it really doesn't matter if the board is half-wet or half-dry. But I don't agree that we can categorize all flops into 100% dry or 100% wet. In this case our opponent could have some SDs and FDs and he is not likely to have a made hand already.

I'm not saying that this board is wet or dry. I'm saying it is not "dry. period." If it really is that dry even if it has a possible FD and it connects with the bottom part of villains opening raise, I want to know why.

Some guys (me including) will open A4s,A5s, 45s, 56s. Those hands have a straight draw.

So if we bet and villain calls, how many made hands he has and how many drawing hands he has? Since this board didn't hit him hard, isn't it more likely he will call our cbet with a hand that has some kind of draw? If he does, it would mean this flop is dynamic, but does it mean that it is even a bit wet also?

I don't know if any of this is relevant. I'm a bit confused by all of this ♦

Originally posted by la55i
No, it really doesn't matter if the board is half-wet or half-dry. But I don't agree that we can categorize all flops into 100% dry or 100% wet.
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Of course there is a scale. The finer you are able to make it (while possibly 24-tabling, when writing in forums with Equliab open things are easier) the better you can play.