Originally posted by Waiboy
Originally posted by ciRith
You have achieved a total 16 of 18 possible points. This corresponds to 89 %!
Folded the paired board but the answer makes sense. 
And wanted to protect KJ with second pair but I like the idea of just calling. (A raise with a turnbet for a freeshowdown isn't that bad.)
Hey ciRith.. snap! Got the same answers.. but for me the answers don't make sense...
The answer says you get 17.5:1 for the call although I read the action as giving at best 16.5:1 if you assume CO calls? Do you count your own bet or am I just dense (well, more so than usual)?!
The answer also says you need 22.5:1 to the turn and 11:1 to the river to call given if you hit the T♥ you've got 10 outs to the boat or better.
This I just don't get - the 10 outs bit no problem, but how does that translate from the flop? With 2 outs you need 22.5:1 to call, you're getting either 16.5:1 or 17.5:1. Is this an implied odds thing? You assume you get at least 2.5BB if you hit, therefore 5SB, therefore 5 + 17.5:1 = 22.5?
With CO calling it would be 17,5:1. Your invested bet counts too as it's not your anymore.
10,5 preflop + 1 Hero + 1 CO + 2 raise + 2 coldcall = 16,5 + 1 CO call = 17,5.
The answer with you 10 outs is confusing indeed. Would be better to calculate it all because your implied odds are less if the T 
as you still could be beat.
I try it. 
You need 5 SB = 2,5 BB implied odds for a profitable call. Let's say you win with the T :spade:.
If it hits on the turn you will raise and UTG will call.
UTG bets = 1 BB, MP2 calls 1 BB, you raise, UTG and MP2 call = 4 BB. On the river you get only 1 caller so you gain 5 BB. (I left out the chance of improving to a fullhouse and that he ghit a flush to make it less complicated.)
If the T comes you are most of the time behind against so many callers. Let's say you win 20% of the time you 5 BB.
80% of the time you get 3-bet on the turn by UTG. This will knock out MP2.
So your "implieds" are now 3 UTG, 1 MP2. On the river 2-3 BB by UTG as you raise and might get 3-bet if you hit that fullhouse.
6-7 BB implied 20% of the time = 1,2-1,4 BB. 80% of the time we lose 4 BB so that are our reverse implied odds = 3,2.
Overall we lose 1,2-1,4 BB - 3,2 BB = - 1,8-2 BB.
As both situations happen 50% you can say that we win 5 BB and lose 1,8-2 BB each time that is 5+1,8-2 = 6,8-7 / 2 = 3,4-3,5 BB implid odds.
We need 2,5 BB so we make a profitabe call.
I hope I decribed it not too complicated even if it's asimplification as there are way more factors to be considered.
As for the KJ hand not needing protection, are there not enough draws worth protecting against? KT, QT, worse Jx, 6x? Or are those draws so weak that they don't need protecting against v 2 villians?
Right. That is a bit of a wa/wb situation. Not a lot draws out and if we are behind we don't have a lot outs either.
As opposed to the question 6 TT hand 3 way on the 5♥ Q♥ 6♠ flop where the flush draw is much stronger and therefore protecting the hand from the draw is that much more important?
Sure protection would be important but the chance is much lower to be ahead here against so many opponents. We also don't get a good chance of protecting. It's better to wait for the turn here as it may change a lot.
And just to clarify your comment - do you mean raise flop, bet turn for free SD is okay with KJ on this board?
Yes.
How to play made hands on the flop.
) and fold JTs on J99 (it depends on players imo)...
