Hand converted with online PokerStrategy.com hand converter:
$0.02/$0.05 No-Limit Hold'em (8 handed)
Known players:
[tg]BB$1.00:///////;UTG1$1.38:///////;UTG2$5.07:///////;MP1$2.00:///////;MP2(Hero)$5.05:///////;MP3$1.00:///////;CO$5.59:///////;BU$9.53:///////;SB$2.17:///////;[/tg]
Preflop: Hero is MP2 with J:d, J:c.
3 folds, Hero raises to $0.20, MP3 folds, CO raises to $5.59(All-In), 2 folds, Hero calls $4.85(All-In).
Flop: ($10.71) 4:s, J:s, 4:d (0 players)
Hero gets uncalled bet back.
Turn: ($10.71) A:d (0 players)
Hero gets uncalled bet back.
River: ($10.71) 5:s (0 players)
Hero gets uncalled bet back.
Final Pot: $5.86.
Ok this hand was tricky pre-flop.Normally with JJ i fold if i got re-raised by too much preflop as it is dominated by Q K A but this guy who all-in was fishy.
Earlier in the game he was all-in once in a while a 4 BB raised randomly to steal the raise i think.So I decided to call his all-in.
Then the result was obvious on the flop ![]()
I was lucky ♦ !
But try to know what hand he had >_>
I was amazed o.o !Tips - his hand would killed me if i had not get the full house.
The question here is - Is it right to call an all-in when you have a read on the opponents that his pre-flop hand is way behind yours?