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[Closed] A question about equity

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feraldave
Joined: 09.03.2009

Hi all, am i understanding this correctly?

6 max, preflop, no reads, not in the blinds..

1. With 2 opponents in the hand before me I need 33% equity to raise?

2. Does 33% equity mean top 33% of hands?

Thank you


2 replies
Waiboy
Joined: 18.09.2008

Hey fd! Didn't know you were playing the chosen game!

Point 1.

While you need 33% equity POST FLOP to raise three handed, pre flop you need to have sufficient equity over random hands behind you yet to act as well as having an equity advantage over the hands already in play.

There's more to this answer but I'm creating questions for myself... think I'll go play with equilator for a bit and let someone else elaborate.

Point 2.

No... remember we are thinking in terms of hand ranges. For example, if a player that has already acted raises with the top 33% of hands, then our hand needs to have an equity advantage over their range.

Equity refers to the percentage of times our hand is likely to win given our opponents hand range.

Okay, that's my two cents. Now someone who actually knows what they're talking about will correct and elaborate! :f_p:

Seeya Sunday night fella!


feraldave
Joined: 09.03.2009

Thanks Wai I thought I had probably over simplified it.

Yes started FL this month, wow theres a lot to learn.

Re Sunday, I think I'm out mate. Got lucky in the early rounds but I'm punching above my weight. Will be following yours and Ians progress though, you guys are killing it so far GL.