Known players:
[tg]Position_Stack:hands/vp$ip/RaisePreflop/AF/WTS/ORL/BBvsSteal/W$SD;CO$6,63:16/25/6/1.3/67/20/-/25;Hero$10,23:///////;[/tg]
0,05/0,1 No-Limit Hold'em (5 handed)
Hand recorder used for this poker hand: Elephant 0.90 by www.pokerstrategy.com.
Preflop: Hero is BU with A♣, K♥
MP3 folds, CO raises to $0,40, Hero raises to $1,50, 2 folds, CO calls $1,10.
Flop: ($3,15) J♦, 8♣, 4♥ (2 players)
CO checks, Hero bets $2, CO raises to $5,13 (All-In), Hero calls $3,13.
Turn: ($13,41) 2♥
River: ($13,41) 4♠ (2 players)
Final Pot: $13,41
My reason for calling was that I had to call $3 for a $10 pot, giving me odds of 3:1, so I only need to have 25% equity against his range. The problem is that if he doesn't do that unless he has a J or OP I only have 16% equity against JJ+,AJs,KJs,QJs,AJo,KJo,QJo. The question is, is it correct to assume that an unknown middle stack can do that without a J or a an overpair? I only had 16 hands so I didn't pay attention to the stats...
