I am currently analysing hand equities with pokerstove and I ran into a question.
I found that I have difficulty analysing the percentual variance of an opponents PFR relative to his position.
Reading through the Fortgeschrittenen Pre-Flop 3.0, Korn gives this example:
1) Problem: Ein Gegner mit einem PFR von 10% raist im MP1. Ihr seid im MP2. Mit welchen H�nden solltet ihr 3-betten, mit welchen H�nden callen, mit welchen folden?
L�sung: Wir sch�tzen, dass ein Gegner mit einem PFR von 10% im MP1 ca. 8% seiner H�nde raist. Das ergibt laut Pokerstove folgende Range: 88+,ATs+,KTs+,QJs,AJo+
Which translates roughly as:
1) Problem: An opponent with a PFR 10% raises from MP1, You are sitting in MP2. With which hands should you 3-bet, with which should you call and with which should you fold
Solution: We estimate that an opponent with PFR 10% in MP1 raises around 8% of his hands. That yields the following handranges according to Pokerstove: 88+,ATs+,KTs+,QJs,AJo+
While I can understand the estimation and would agree with it, I find it hard to analyse this variance in different positions. Which percentage of his hands would this opponent raise in UTG+1 ? Which percentage would he raise on the Button? Does anybody have a calculation or good rule of thumb to adapt PFR percentages based on an opponents position?
I also found another quote on the Pokerstove article:
"Korn estimates the following for shorthanded:
quote:
MP2 ~ 0.75 * PFR
MP3 ~ PFR
CO ~ 1.5 * PFR
BU ~ 2 * PFR"
I also thought that MP3 = average PFR however I don't think the other suggestions translate well to fullring.
Anybody have an answer or suggestion for me?
