Poker maths question !

Hi there Gajus,

I will move this to the no limit beginners discussion where it may get a proper response.

Regards,

Mal.

how do you know its no limit?

The probability of flopping two pair using both hole cards is 2%.

If you're asking about those specific cards of that specific suit than it's obviously much less but I don't see how that question might help you.

You calculate it as what cards miss:

44/50 x 44/49 x 44/48. Thats your probabillity to miss EXACTLY 2 pairs. Thats 72%. So You have arond 28%.

PS This is true for general 2 pairs, not that specific hand, but u got the idea now

Originally posted by matel17
The probability of flopping two pair using both hole cards is 2%.

If you're asking about those specific cards of that specific suit than it's obviously much less but I don't see how that question might help you.

Can we meet and play pls?;)

Originally posted by ZeroDegrees
You calculate it as what cards miss:

44/50 x 44/49 x 44/48. Thats your probabillity to miss EXACTLY 2 pairs. Thats 72%. So You have arond 28%.

PS This is true for general 2 pairs, not that specific hand, but u got the idea now

So to get Q 8 J :club:. I will need to do like this: 1/50 x 1/49 x 1/48 ?

Originally posted by Gajus11
So to get Q 8 J :club:. I will need to do like this: 1/50 x 1/49 x 1/48 ?

Yes.

Actually. I messed up.

The first draw from 50 cards, you have 3 good.

3/50

The second draw from 49 cards, you have 2 good.

2/49

The final draw from 48 cards, you have 1 good.

1/48

Therefore:

3/50 * 2/49 * 1/48 = ....

Glad I rectified that. For that specific order on the board, then the YES response stands.

Originally posted by lynius

Originally posted by Gajus11
So to get Q 8 J :club:. I will need to do like this: 1/50 x 1/49 x 1/48 ?

Yes.

NO, dont work that way

Originally posted by ZeroDegrees
NO, dont work that way

Why not because its not enough to say that this is not the right way. You need to write how to calculate correctly. So I look forward to your reply.

Sry for the lazy answer. If you want those exact cards you can calculate it as 3/50 x 2/49 x 1/48 and then divide by 6. The available order that are possible for 3 cards. Its called permutation if you wanna google it.

Originally posted by Gajus11
So to get Q 8 J :club:. I will need to do like this: 1/50 x 1/49 x 1/48 ?

That is the probability of getting exactly Q♦ 8♠ J♣ in that order on the flop.

If order is unimportant and 8♠ Q♦ J♣ is permissable then:

3/50 x 2/49 x 1/48 is the probability you want.

(or 1/50 x 1/49 x 1/48 x 3P3)

Rob

(Edit: Simultaneously posted with ZeroDegrees.)

But then again, I'm drunk, so what do I know;)

@OP: You want to calculated the possibility of the flopping Qd8sJc in that order and suit??

PS. If that is the case your hand does not matter.