Hand converted with online PokerStrategy.com hand converter:
$0.25/$0.5 No-Limit Hold'em (8 handed)
Known players:
[tg]BB$9.90:///////;UTG2(Hero)$11.25:///////;MP1$11.15:///////;MP2$51.90:///////;MP3$17.85:///////;CO$9.25:///////;BU$49.70:///////;SB$55.85:///////;[/tg]
Preflop: Hero is UTG2 with A:h, A:s.
Hero raises to $2, MP1 calls $2.00, 3 folds, BU calls $2.00, 2 folds.
Flop: ($6.75) 8:d, 3:d, 4:d (3 players)
Hero bets $9.25(All-In), MP1 folds, BU folds, Hero gets uncalled bet back.
Final Pot: $6.75.
Results follow:
Hero shows a pair of aces (A:h A:s)
Hero wins with a pair of aces (A:h A:s).
I know I won this hand with this All-In, but is this even close to the correct play here?
My thinking at the time was, I can't let it be cheap in case they are holding one diamond, hence the All-In.... Correct line? Or way off base?
