Is it correct to go all-in as a c-bet, when all-in means 2/3's the pot?
I think the MSS article says this is correct against exactly one opponent. I was against two, so I guess I was wrong for this reason?
Would it have been the correct move if there was only one opponet?
I guess all the action before the flop shows that they have something they don't want to fold, even to c-bet? So, does this mean it is a bad call, or is it justified with pot odds and a back door flush draw with two overcards?
Here is the hand:
Hand converted with online PokerStrategy.com hand converter:
$0.02/$0.05 No-Limit Hold'em (8 handed)
Known players:
[tg]SB$7.65:///////;BB (Hero)$1.60:///////;UTG2$1.56:///////;MP1$6.01:///////;MP2$5.01:///////;MP3$4.20:///////;CO$7.53:///////;BU$5.10:///////;[/tg]
Preflop: Hero is BB with K:d, A:h.
2 folds, MP2 raises to $0.15, MP3 calls $0.15, 3 folds, Hero raises to $0.45, MP2 calls $0.30, MP3 calls $0.30.
Flop: ($1.37) T:h, 9:h, 5:c (3 players)
Hero bets $1.15, MP2 calls $1.15, MP3 calls $1.15.
Turn: ($4.82) 3:c (2 players)
MP2 bets $3.41, MP3 calls $2.60(All-In).
River: ($10.83) 6:c (3 players)
Final Pot: $10.83.
Results follow
Spoiler
:MP2 shows a pair of queens(Q:c Q:s).Hero shows high card ace(K:d A:h).MP3 shows three of a kind, threes(3:h 3:d).MP3 wins with three of a kind, threes(3:h 3:d).
