@Avataren :
I dont say that what you statement is incorrect ,I only questioned it , I said that your inference is invalid, because it lacks any form of syllogism.
And yes I questioned boomer, I do that a lot of times, for me it is not enough when someone just claims something, he has to prove it, because I can only understand things if I see the reason why it is so. No one is unerring, it took a half year for him to realize what I had been saying constantly that if you have a flat 100%+0% donk strategy from the BB it can be exploited by x-ing back. Even Einstein made a mistake in the original deduction of the special relativity theory, the one for which he won a Noble prize, and it was corrected by Planck years later. Why should I assume then that he is correct, when no one could come up with something that at least suggests that you have to play X% more from a specific position rather then Y%. Thats it we are humans, and we make mistakes, and I think its better to find out where we are wrong instead of just claiming that one side has right and the other is wrong.
The only reasoning I saw regarding preflop ranges was the one that resulted the silver charts,which based on average potsize + pot equity. And I have never seen anything like that,which would prove a different statement. The only thing Ive been looking for years is just an answer that shows how do people get to that conclusion that the right play is to be a lot looser. I have my reasons, but its based on empirical data rather than some kind of calculus.
As to the math side, I also tried to solve the problem on my own,providing that I play against opponents who make no mistakes postflop so their game is at least 0EV from then, and I was trying to estimate the chance that they get a worse/better hand then the dealt one (depending if it was on the bottom or top of the range) and guess what: it resulted an even tighter orc. The difference was a few % like 10% instead of 13% from MP2, which could be because it should contain more bluffs than I estimated, but this method based on my own logic provided a solution very near to the PS charts.
I dont claim that these are correct because there is no evidence for that, but these are the only ones I found so far that provided at least some kind of model that showed a direction where the solution can be.
YohanN7:
A range that is too tight is automatically imbalanced.
That is not true for sure. Balance has a different meaning it means that a range has an optimal combination of value and bluffs regarding the profitabilitiy of bluffcatching. Say a range contains only AA and 32o in a ratio that makes you indifferent to bluffcatch it is a balanced range despite that it contains less than 2% of all combos.
And this is why I said that take a FR UTG range which you consider a good and balanced range and open that from the small blind and tell me what do you do otherwise vs such a SB compared to the FR UTG. Which hands do you play differently, which ones are that you can exploit the small blind with but the UTG not. That would prove what you say.
But in case you cant the only mistake that such a tight open raiser makes is that he gives up value, because he could steal the blinds more often profitably, and we get to that point again which I asked you in the very beginning, that is there a % that you should raise from a position. And you said no one has a clue not even for a BU range %, and this concludes in a contradiction, because on one side you say that no one knows how much you should open, and on the other you say that 37% is tight for a BU open. How can you claim that its tight if you cant prove what % is the threshold between tight and loose ?