Confusing explanation

*sorry i explained why the correct answer is correct*

Well this is how I see it, and I think this is what the explanation means: this is a call, since you have implied odds both against the CO, who should have a strong hand, and against MP1, who may call wide and stack off if he flops relatively good. So you are likely to be playing vs two players in position with implied odds. If MP1 folds you're still not in a terrible spot since you have some implied odds and position and it's very clear how to proceed post-flop. You will only be pushed off your hand pre if MP wakes up with a premium hand and shoves.
And I guess this presumes that MP1 is loose and CO is tight because if CO has a wide 3bet range 88 would be hard to play post-flop, and if MP1 is solid he's not calling very often and not really giving you lots of implied odds since he'd be likely to be set mining too if he calls.

Originally posted by xxxxxx192RNMD
I find the wording of this explanation very confusing. Can someone please word it more clearly for me? Thank you

Thanks, LedZayats for that.

I think that pretty much covers it.

I'll put it in point form:
♦  If MP1 alone is raising, and has a big enough stack, you have odds to call if each of you has a stack 20x the required bet -- that is the so-called Call 20 rule.
♦  When CO bets so large you no longer have such good odds.
♦  4-Betting is out, because CO is representing too good a hand, and you're against 2 players.
♦  MP1 will only shove if he has KK+ -- so he will either fold or call.
♦  If you call COs bet, and MP1 calls then you can collect 2 stacks if you hit.
♦  If MP1 shoves, then you can gracefully fold.

You did not provide the stacks and stats, so I can't comment on the last part:

"If you get to the flop 3-handed, you'll also have implied odds again.

The loose fish will often have a strong hand against which you should have implied odds. Calling is a must."

Best Regards,
--VS