I have 176 hand sample with villain. His stats 20/17 and he folded to 3bet 2 times. I have notes that he played turn draw aggresiveliy once,and raised flop w/Overpair and less.
On first thought I think this is a tilted call, and obvious fold. But then I put some number it confuses me.
On flop when villain goes all in I need 37% for BE call.
Against TT,66,55 I am obviously underdog 8%, but if I put to his all in range QQ,JJ I am ahead 56% to 44%.
Question is, when I am reviewing hands how do I put villains range more precise?
Your thoughts?
Thank you in advance
PokerStars - $0.05 NL (6 max) - Holdem - 6 players
Hand converted by PokerTracker 4
Hero (SB): 100 BB
BB: 291 BB
UTG: 123.6 BB
MP: 100 BB
CO: 206.6 BB
BTN: 139.2 BB
Hero posts SB 0.4 BB, BB posts BB 1 BB
Pre Flop: (pot: 1.4 BB) Hero has A♠ A♦
fold, MP raises to 2.4 BB, fold, fold, Hero raises to 11 BB, fold, MP calls 8.6 BB
Flop: (23 BB, 2 players) T♠ 5♦ 6♥
Hero bets 14.6 BB, MP raises to 89 BB and is all-in, Hero calls 74.4 BB and is all-in
Turn: (201 BB, 2 players) 8♥
River: (201 BB, 2 players) 5♥
MP cashed out 173.6 BB for a fee of 1.8 BB
Hero shows A♠ A♦ (Two Pair, Aces and Fives)
MP shows 6♣ 6♦ (Full House, Sixes full of Fives)
VS
